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OEC Practice Questions 1 (100 questions)
Write your answers down on a piece of paper then check against
the answer sheet.
1. Impaled objects in the abdomen should be:
A) stabilized in place.
B) removed quickly.
C) gently removed.
D) removed only if bleeding is present.
2. A standard of care can be described as:
A) how emergency room staff would provide care in the same situation.
B) the care a reasonably prudent person, with similar training, would provide in
the same situation.
C) national training standards used to educate new rescuers.
D) care based on what senior paramedics would do in similar situations.
3. Pain felt at a location other than its origin is:
A) transferred pain.
B) transposed pain.
C) remote pain.
D) referred pain.
4. Blood is supplied to the left ventricle by the:
A) right coronary artery.
B) left coronary artery.
C) pulmonary artery.
D) aorta.
5. In the mnemonic S-A-M-P-L-E, the "A" reminds you to assess for:
A) admissions (hospital).
B) allergies.
C) abrasions.
D) abdominal pain.
6. The back up system of respiratory control is based on concentrations of
oxygen measured in the aorta and carotid arteries. This system is called the:
A) pneumotaxic control.
B) secondary respiratory center.
C) hypoxic drive.
D) oxyhemoglobin sensor system.
7. Fractures can result in significant bleeding. Assessment should include:
A) proper BSI precautions.
B) visual inspection of the injury site.
C) CMS evaluation.
D) all of the above
8. A 19-year-old man ran into a tree on his mountain bike and a tree branch is
stuck in his neck. Priority management of this patient would include:
A) spinal immobilization.
B) control of bleeding.
C) airway management.
D) assessment for shock.
9. Triage and treatment continue until:
A) nightfall.
B) shift change.
C) ambulances have all been sent to hospitals.
D) all patients have been treated and transported.
10. Open chest wounds are generally treated by using a(n) :
A) porous, breathing-type dressing.
B) occlusive, airtight dressing.
C) sling and swathe dressing.
D) pressure dressing and ace bandages.
11. The only time a patient should be moved before packaging is complete would
be when:
A) you receive another call.
B) police direct you to "hurry up."
C) the rescuer's or patient's life is in immediate danger.
D) your partner is busy with another patient.
12. You should immobilize all suspected spinal injuries in:
A) traction splints.
B) the prone position.
C) the position of deformity.
D) the neutral in-line position.
13. The first step in assessing a behavioral emergency is to:
A) take vital signs.
B) protect yourself.
C) restrain the patient.
D) obtain a past history.
14. The regular use of protective barriers and practices for avoiding exposure
to communicable diseases is called:
A) infection control.
B) infection prevention.
C) significant exposure.
D) body substance isolation (BSI).
15. The motion of rotating a limb inward and drawn toward the body is known as:
A) abduction.
B) adduction.
C) extension.
D) flexion.
16. When treating a patient with thermal burns to the eyelids, the rescuer
should:
A) cover both eyes with a dry dressing.
B) cover both eyes with a moist dressing.
C) keep the patient sitting up with eyes open.
D) keep the patient lying down with eyes open.
17. Aphasia is:
A) slurred and hard-to-understand speech.
B) the inability to produce or understand speech.
C) disregard for malfunctioning body parts.
D) altered level of responsiveness after a seizure.
18. You have responded to the base lodge area for a 73-year-old man complaining
of chest pain. What should your treatment include?
A) Place the patient prone on a cot to help him breathe easier.
B) Ask whether someone has some nitroglycerin that you could give to the
patient.
C) Get the patient's insurance number.
D) Administer oxygen to the patient while conducting an assessment.
19. Hypothermia occurs when:
A) heat gained exceeds heat lost.
B) heat lost exceeds heat gained.
C) air temperature exceeds body temperature.
D) air temperature drops below body temperature.
20. In the pulmonary circulatory system, deoxygenated blood leaves the heart and
travels to the lungs via the:
A) aorta.
B) pulmonary vein.
C) pulmonary artery.
D) superior vena cava.
21. Which of the following would NOT be an indication of imminent birth?
A) The mother feels the urge to move her bowels
B) Crowning
C) Gushing of amniotic fluid
D) The mother states she needs to push
22. To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, measure the distance between
the:
A) chin and nostril.
B) chin and earlobe.
C) nose and earlobe.
D) corner of the mouth and earlobe.
23. The systolic blood pressure is a measurement of:
A) atrial relaxation.
B) atrial contraction.
C) ventricular relaxation.
D) ventricular contraction.
24. To clear a foreign body airway obstruction in an infant, you should perform:
A) the Heimlich maneuver.
B) sets of five back blows and five chest thrusts.
C) four to six subdiaphragmatic thrusts.
D) blind finger sweeps to clear the obstruction.
25. A fracture where the bone is broken in two or more pieces is known as what
kind of fracture?
A) greenstick
B) comminuted
C) pathologic
D) epiphyseal
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26. A cognitive disability is:
A) the ability to process information, but difficulty with movement through
space.
B) an inherited neurologic disorder.
C) damage to the brain and at times these individuals hear voices.
D) damage or deterioration of the brain and affects the ability to process
information.
27. A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Other rescuers are performing CPR.
You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that the patient has
an automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a
shock is indicated. What should you do?
A) Do not shock because the shock could damage the AICD.
B) Do not shock because you know the shock will not be successful.
C) Proceed as with any other cardiac arrest patient in which the AED advises a
shock.
D) Deliver a shock, but reduce the energy setting to 50 joules so as not to
damage the AICD.
28. Labored breathing, difficulty in breathing, or shortness of breath that may
lead to hypoxia is known as:
A) cyanosis.
B) dyspnea.
C) tachypnea.
D) ecchymosis.
29. What type of dressing should be applied to all burns?
A) betadine
B) Vaseline
C) dry, sterile
D) moist, sterile
30. Accumulation of air in the pleural space is known as:
A) subcutaneous emphysema.
B) flail chest.
C) hemothorax.
D) pneumothorax.
31. Good Samaritan Laws provide:
A) protection from medical lawsuits.
B) defenses against gross negligence.
C) reduced liability for failure to exercise due care.
D) an affirmative defense if sued for rendering care.
32. The artery that can be palpated on the anterior surface of the foot is the:
A) dorsalis pedis.
B) posterior tibia.
C) anterior tibia.
D) anterior fibula.
33. The twisting type of fall that can cause a knee sprain or a spiral fracture
of the tibia and fibula is an example of which kind of force?
A) bending
B) compression
C) rotational
D) crushing
34. In caring for facial injuries, the rescuer's primary concern is to:
A) stop all bleeding.
B) stabilize the c-spine.
C) maintain an open airway.
D) assess all vital signs.
35. A patient with multiple bone or joint injuries would be triaged as:
A) red.
B) yellow.
C) green.
D) black.
36. What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious
patient?
A) vomitus
B) the tongue
C) blood clots
D) aspirated food
37. A man who has fallen and rolled down a black diamond run has obvious bone
injuries to his lower extremities and is bleeding freely from a wound to his
left side. He has a blood pressure of 104/54 mm Hg, a thready pulse of 128
beats/min, and shallow respirations of 28 breaths/min. After securing his airway
and giving oxygen by mask at 10 L/min, you should:
A) control the bleeding from the wound.
B) splint the bone injuries.
C) record his vital signs again.
D) apply and inflate a pneumatic counterpressure device.
38. A supracondylar fracture is:
A) a fracture of the femur just below the hip.
B) a minor fracture of the pelvis.
C) a fracture of the patella.
D) a fracture just above the knee.
39. What color is used to indicate the "immediate" triage category?
A) red
B) black
C) green
D) yellow
40. You are assessing a patient's level of responsiveness. The unresponsive
patient moans when the hand is pinched. This response indicates the patient is:
A) alert.
B) unresponsive.
C) responsive to verbal stimuli.
D) responsive to painful stimuli.
41. The right atrium of the heart receives blood that is:
A) oxygenated and coming from the lungs.
B) oxygenated and coming from the vena cava.
C) low in oxygen and coming from the lungs.
D) low in oxygen and coming from the vena cava.
42. The 1st thing the rescuer will likely have to do after uncovering a buried
avalanche victim is:
A) give CPR.
B) examine for trauma.
C) clear the airway.
D) start rescue breathing.
43. Which factor(s) accounts for a higher injury incident rate in the late
afternoon?
A) higher skier density
B) fatigue
C) deteriorating ski conditions
D) all of the above
44. Boot removal on the hill, handling of intoxicated patients, and use of AEDs
are issues that are often determined by:
A) a patrol representative.
B) local protocols.
C) the county medical director.
D) OEC guidelines.
45. After applying a dressing to an arterial bleed, you notice that the dressing
becomes soaked with blood. You should:
A) replace the dressing with another dressing.
B) cover the existing dressing with a plastic bag.
C) wrap an elastic bandage around the blood-soaked dressing.
D) apply additional dressings and pressure to control the bleeding.
46. Shivering is the body's method of:
A) warning of an impending infection.
B) maintaining or increasing its core temperature.
C) maintaining or reducing its core temperature.
D) maintaining fluid consistency of the tissues.
47. A patient has granted you permission to start treatment. This is called:
A) expressed consent.
B) duty to act.
C) standard of care.
D) Res Ipsa Loquitur.
48. Muscle tissue is directly attached to the bone by a tough, ropelike fibrous
structure known as:
A) fascia.
B) tendons.
C) cartilage.
D) ligaments.
49. The term behavioral emergency is defined as:
A) a person's mental activity.
B) behavior that is within acceptable norms.
C) the manner in which a person acts or performs.
D) a change in mood or behavior that cannot be tolerated by the person, family,
or community.
50. Contact lenses should not be removed in the field except in cases of:
A) thermal burns.
B) chemical burns.
C) radiation burns.
D) light burns.
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51. When the baby's head has delivered, you should immediately:
A) apply vaginal pads to the perineal area to reduce the blood loss.
B) massage the mother's uterus by kneading it to speed up delivery of the baby's
body.
C) insert a sterile gloved hand into the vagina to relieve pressure around the
baby's neck.
D) check the location of the umbilical cord and suction the mouth and nose.
52. Avulsions of the scalp should be cared for by:
A) placing the avulsed flap back in position and covering with a moist dressing.
B) covering the inside of the avulsed flap with a moist dressing and the scalp
with a dry dressing.
C) covering both the scalp and the avulsed flap with a moist, sterile dressing.
D) placing the avulsed flap back in place and covering with a dry dressing.
53. When caring for an open abdominal wound from which organs are protruding,
the rescuer should:
A) cover the wound with a dry, sterile dressing.
B) cover the wound with a moist, sterile dressing.
C) apply an occlusive air tight dressing.
D) apply a Vaseline gauze dressing.
54. The emergency care of superficial frostbite is to:
A) rapidly rewarm the affected part in a waterbath that has a temperature of
102–108º F.
B) apply direct body heat, no warmer than normal body temperature.
C) open any blisters that may have formed.
D) wrap the affected part in sterile dry dressings and immobilize.
55. A person who has training in basic emergency care skills, including
automatic external defibrillation, use of airway adjuncts, and assisting with
certain medications is called:
A) a first responder.
B) an EMT-B (Basic).
C) an EMT-I (Intermediate).
D) an EMT-P (Paramedic).
56. Status epilepticus is defined as:
A) a seizure that lasts for less than 15 minutes.
B) a very mild seizure.
C) a continuous seizure for 13 minutes or more.
D) a seizure with no known cause.
57. How many vertebrae protect the spinal cord?
A) 7
B) 12
C) 31
D) 33
58. What is autonomic dysreflexia?
A) condition in which the person cannot easily breathe
B) inability to move through space in a coordinated manner
C) condition in which the body is unable to sense stimuli
D) condition in which the person cannot verbalize
59. Tubing injuries, most often caused by collisions or rollovers, cause which
type of injuries?
A) soft-tissue injuries
B) head and spinal injuries
C) multiple fractures
D) all of the above
60. Normal respirations for an adult patient should be between:
A) 6 and 20 breaths/min.
B) 6 and 30 breaths/min.
C) 12 and 20 breaths/min.
D) 12 and 30 breaths/min.
61. A 32-year-old patient is reported to have had a generalized seizure and is
now postictal on your arrival. Your first action is to:
A) contact dispatch to send an ALS unit.
B) determine if airway and breathing are adequate.
C) obtain a complete set of vital signs.
D) interview family members for a description of the seizure.
62. The term "chief complaint" is best defined as the:
A) symptom that is bothering the patient the most.
B) most severe findings after examining the patient.
C) obvious impression you note, regardless of what the patient says.
D) statements from family members about how the patient is feeling.
63. Pregnant patients who are not in labor should be transported on the left
side to avoid:
A) pressure on the uterus that could cause placenta previa.
B) pressure on the uterus that could cause the fetus to have a bowel movement.
C) increasing the mother's blood pressure by compressing the inferior vena cava.
D) decreasing the mother's blood pressure by compressing the inferior vena cava.
64. Hypoxia is defined as:
A) decreased oxygen in body tissues.
B) increased oxygen saturations.
C) reduced ventilations.
D) oxygen and carbon dioxide mismatch.
65. How many one-way valves does the heart have?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
66. What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in children?
A) trauma to the chest
B) respiratory problems
C) myocardial infarction
D) massive head injury
67. What type of shock results from internal and external bleeding?
A) psychic
B) neurogenic
C) anaphylactic
D) hypovolemic
68. You are treating a patient who you suspect is having a myocardial
infarction, yet the patient is demonstrating the signs of shock. What is this
type of shock called?
A) septic
B) cardiogenic
C) ventricular
D) hypovolemic
69. All of the following would be appropriate treatments for a patient with
abdominal trauma who is in shock EXCEPT:
A) covering him or her with a warm blanket.
B) providing prompt transport.
C) small sips of water if not nauseated.
D) oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
70. What is important to know about patients with spina bifida?
A) They are often allergic to latex and could die if exposed to it.
B) They are more susceptible to frostbite on their upper extremities.
C) They have poor vision.
D) all of the above
71. If the brain is deprived of oxygen, cells in the brain may die within how
many minutes?
A) 1 minute
B) 4 to 6 minutes
C) 6 to 10 minutes
D) 10 to 15 minutes
72. Oral glucose should not be given to diabetic patients who:
A) are found unconscious.
B) have low blood pressure.
C) are complaining of abdominal pain.
D) have been drinking alcoholic beverages.
73. Poisons produced during digestion are brought to what organ & converted to
harmless substances?
A) pancreas
B) kidneys
C) liver
D) rectum
74. What should you do first at the scene of an unsafe incident?
A) Remove bystanders.
B) Call for additional help.
C) Provide safety for the patient.
D) Take steps to provide for your safety.
75. The term "baseline vital signs" is used to describe:
A) vital signs taken at the base of the wrist.
B) the initial set of vital signs taken.
C) trending in all vital signs taken.
D) the vital signs taken prior to your assessment.
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76. The topographic term used to describe the back surface of the body is:
A) anterior.
B) exterior.
C) inferior.
D) posterior.
77. A common cause of shock in an infant is:
A) febrile seizures.
B) vomiting and diarrhea.
C) cigarette burns on the arms.
D) venous bleeding from a 1-inch laceration of the hand.
78. A 10 yr old child has fallen 12 ft from a tree. On exam he is noted to have
multiple abrasions and contusions in several areas. He has no obvious
deformities and denies having pain in the neck or back. His vitals are as
follows: pulse of 132 beats/min, strong and regular; respirations of 28
breaths/min with mild dyspnea; and a blood pressure of 110/68 mm Hg. He has been
treated with O2 and covered with a blanket. Additional interventions for shock
would include:
A) offering him sips of water to calm him down.
B) elevating his lower extremities.
C) assessing and recording vital signs every 15 minutes.
D) applying pediatric PASG to improve perfusion.
79. Using the Rule of Nines, you would calculate that an adult with
circumferential burns of both legs would have what percentage of burn?
A) 9%
B) 18%
C) 36%
D) 54%
80. The area of the brain that is located just underneath the cerebrum is the:
A) brain stem.
B) gray matter.
C) spinal ganglion.
D) cerebellum.
81. During a CVA, blood flow is interrupted and brain cells die. These dead
cells are said to be:
A) ischemic.
B) embolic.
C) infarcted.
D) tentorial.
82. An incident command system is structured with a single person with overall
responsibility. This person is the:
A) operations commander.
B) incident authority.
C) command leader.
D) incident commander.
83. Burns are classified by:
A) pain.
B) depth.
C) redness.
D) swelling.
84. A patient is bleeding from the ears and nose as a result of trauma. You
should NOT:
A) administer oxygen.
B) keep the patient calm and quiet.
C) collect the blood with a loose dressing.
D) pack the ears and nose to slow the blood flow.
85. A patient partially regains responsiveness en route from the hill to the aid
room. Although not totally alert or oriented, the patient tells you that he
feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances,
you should:
A) allow the patient to ski away.
B) assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired.
C) ignore his demands and continue to the aid room.
D) request that the police place the patient under protective custody.
86. Your patient is lying supine. He is incoherent and sluggish, and his breath
smells of alcohol. The police identify him as a chronic alcoholic. What other
condition could cause this patient's change in behavior?
A) gout
B) bursitis
C) mild hypertension
D) uncontrolled diabetes
87. The most common serious ski injury—which poses a permanent threat to an
active lifestyle— is:
A) clavicle fracture.
B) wrist fracture.
C) severe knee sprain.
D) snowboarder's ankle.
88. A 25-year-old snowboarder has hit a tree. On exam you find bruising to the
chest, distended neck veins, bilateral but decreased breath sounds, and
cyanosis. Priority care for this patient includes:
A) rapid transport to the hospital.
B) ventilatory support.
C) contacting medical control.
D) deferring vital signs.
89. A patient with a broken leg is properly splinted and ready for transport.
What other steps could be taken to prevent additional discomfort to the patient?
A) Allow the patient to drink warm fluids.
B) Elevate the injured limb slightly.
C) Apply hot packs to the injured limb.
D) Encourage the patient to flex the foot.
90. When transporting a patient in a toboggan, normally the patient is
positioned:
A) with the injury uphill.
B) with the injury downhill.
C) laying on the side of the body opposite the injury site.
D) it does not matter; speed is the most important issue.
91. It is important to keep patients well wrapped in winter, as they may lose
body heat by lying on a cold surface. This type of heat loss is known as:
A) conduction.
B) convection.
C) radiation.
D) evaporation.
92. After determining scene safety at a mass-casualty incident, the next step
is:
A) contact EMS.
B) provide urgent care to the most seriously injured patient.
C) scene size-up.
D) enlist help from patients with slight injuries.
93. A 15-year-old female patient reports severe eye pain. On exam you notice
conjunctivitis and excessive tearing. History reveals she had been skiing for
about 4 hours without eye protection. You suspect she has:
A) snowblindness.
B) optic nerve irritation.
C) retinal detachment.
D) an eye infection.
94. Early recognition of the following may depend on your alertness and
understanding of MOI?
A) internal bleeding
B) liability
C) bystander involvement
D) need for more assistance
95. A skier who catches a pole basket in a tree while wearing the strap around
the wrist may dislocate a shoulder due to the decelerating force. This could
result in what kind of trauma?
A) rotational
B) bending
C) compression
D) distraction
96. Which of the following is NOT a step in treating a patient with an acute
abdomen?
A) Anticipate vomiting.
B) Administer analgesic.
C) Anticipate shock.
D) Give oxygen.
97. In a large MCI, components of medical branch include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A) triage.
B) treatment.
C) transport.
D) security.
98. What system is responsible for providing 02 to the tissues of the body and
removing C02 waste?
A) nervous
B) digestive
C) respiratory
D) cardiovascular
99. Which of the following steps is NOT considered a safety precaution when
lifting a patient?
A) Use your legs to lift.
B) Use your back to lift.
C) Assure firm footing when lifting.
D) Keep the weight as close to your body as possible.
100. A 16 yr old F patient is complaining of dyspnea, numbness, & tingling in
her hands & feet after an argument with her boyfriend. She has an increased rate
and effort of breathing. You should:
A) have her breathe into a paper bag.
B) place her on a nonrebreathing mask without oxygen.
C) observe her respirations without specific treatment of them.
D) give her supplemental oxygen.
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Answer Sheet
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