The following 10 questions are from Chapter 18




1.

What type of fractures are caused by rotational falls?

A.

greenstick

B.

spiral

C.

stress

D.

transverse



2.

If a powerful force is exerted on the body, the rescuer should suspect shock (possibly severe) and:

A.

coma

B.

heart attack

C.

internal injuries

D.

death



3.

Damage to the body caused by an external force is:

A.

force

B.

trauma

C.

energy

D.

massive



4.

A passenger who is not wearing a seat belt is sitting in the front seat of an automobile that hits a brick wall. He sustains a large contusion of the forehead from hitting the windshield and a fractured patella from striking the dashboard. These injuries are an example of which kind of trauma?

A.

stretching

B.

penetrating

C.

compression

D.

deceleration



5.

The twisting type of fall that can cause a knee sprain or a spiral fracture of the tibia and fibula is an example of which kind of force?

A.

bending

B.

compression

C.

rotational

D.

crushing



6.

Hyperextension and stretching trauma would be most probable in which circumstance?

A.

a twisting fall

B.

a ski pole basket catching on a tree while pole straps are still on the skier's wrists

C.

collision stopping motion abruptly

D.

a bicyclist falling sideways



7.

Trauma that occurs at a place where force meets the body, such as falling on a rock, is called:

A.

direct trauma.

B.

indirect trauma.

C.

focused trauma.

D.

incidental trauma.



8.

What type of trauma injury is hyperextension?

A.

acceleration

B.

bending

C.

rotational

D.

deceleration



9.

A skier who catches a pole basket in a tree while wearing the strap around the wrist may dislocate a shoulder due to the decelerating force. This could result in what kind of trauma?

A.

rotational

B.

bending

C.

compression

D.

distraction



10.

Early recognition of which of the following may depend on your alertness and understanding of MOI?

A.

internal bleeding

B.

liability

C.

bystander involvement

D.

need for more assistance



The following 30 questions are from Chapter 19




11.

What cells form a watertight, protective seal for the body?

A.

dermis

B.

epidermis

C.

muscle layer

D.

subcutaneous layer



12.

What skin layer contains structures that give the skin its appearance?

A.

muscle

B.

germinal

C.

dermis

D.

epidermis



13.

What structure in the skin carries information from the environment to the brain?

A.

hair follicles

B.

blood vessels

C.

sweat glands

D.

sensory nerves



14.

A closed soft-tissue injury with swelling and ecchymosis is called a:

A.

contusion.

B.

hematoma.

C.

concussion.

D.

crush injury.



15.

What type of injury allows a pool of blood to collect under the skin?

A.

abrasion

B.

avulsion

C.

contusion

D.

hematoma



16.

An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue describes what type of injury?

A.

abrasion

B.

avulsion

C.

laceration

D.

amputation



17.

What type of injury appears as a friction rub to the outer skin layer and has little or no oozing of blood?

A.

abrasion

B.

avulsion

C.

contusion

D.

concussion



18.

You are treating a patient who has an avulsion on the heel. You should apply:

A.

an ice pack.

B.

a dry, sterile dressing.

C.

a moist, sterile dressing.

D.

a Vaseline gauze dressing.



19.

You are treating a patient with an impaled object in the leg. The object should be:

A.

left alone.

B.

stabilized in place.

C.

carefully removed.

D.

covered with a loose dressing.



20.

A patient has a sucking chest wound. What type of dressing should you apply?

A.

occlusive

B.

loose, bulky

C.

dry, sterile

D.

moist, sterile



21.

What type of dressing should you apply to an abdominal evisceration?

A.

betadine

B.

dry, sterile

C.

moist, sterile

D.

Vaseline gauze



22.

Burns are classified by:

A.

pain.

B.

depth.

C.

redness.

D.

swelling.



23.

What type of burn involves only the epidermis?

A.

epidermal

B.

superficial

C.

full-thickness

D.

partial-thickness



24.

A patient has a burn that appears charred, dry, and leathery. The patient complains of little or no pain at the site. This burn would be classified as:

A.

epidermal.

B.

superficial.

C.

full-thickness.

D.

partial-thickness.



25.

The first step in treating any burn is to:

A.

insert an IV.

B.

cover the wound.

C.

soak it in cold water.

D.

stop the burning process.



26.

What type of dressing should be applied to all burns?

A.

betadine

B.

Vaseline

C.

dry, sterile

D.

moist, sterile



27.

A partial-thickness burn differs from a superficial burn by the presence of:

A.

pain.

B.

alkali.

C.

blisters.

D.

redness.



28.

A dry chemical has been spilled on your patient. You should:

A.

brush it off.

B.

irrigate it with water.

C.

obtain a sample for identification.

D.

not go near the patient.



29.

Which of the following types of burns may cause only a small burn to the skin but severe damage to deeper tissues?

A.

arc

B.

flash

C.

electrical

D.

chemical



30.

All patients with critical burns should be treated with:

A.

analgesics.

B.

5% dextrose in water.

C.

supplemental oxygen.

D.

moist, sterile dressings.



31.

Which of the following examples is NOT considered a dressing?

A.

Telfa pad

B.

air splint

C.

adhesive-type

D.

4" x 4" gauze pad



32.

The main purpose of a bandage is to:

A.

splint fractures.

B.

prevent infection.

C.

create an airtight seal.

D.

hold dressings in place.



33.

What is the most appropriate way to care for an amputated body part?

A.

Delay care of the part until all of the patient's injuries are treated.

B.

Wrap the part in a towel soaked in sterile saline solution and place it on the stretcher with the patient.

C.

Wrap the part in dry, sterile gauze; put it in a plastic bag; and keep it cool.

D.

Attempt to reimplant the part by bandaging it to the stump tightly to control hemorrhaging.



34.

A woman has a piece of metal embedded in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. You should immediately:

A.

stabilize the metal piece with bulky dressings.

B.

remove the metal piece and apply direct pressure to the wound.

C.

remove the metal piece and then apply and inflate a pneumatic counterpressure device.

D.

cut the metal piece off flush with the skin and seal the wound with sterile aluminum foil.



35.

A burn that involves the two outermost layers of skin and is characterized by the formation of blisters is considered to be what type of burn?

A.

moderate

B.

superficial

C.

full-thickness

D.

partial-thickness



36.

Burns are considered moderate if they are:

A.

associated with any degree of respiratory injury.

B.

full-thickness burns of 2% to 10% of the body area.

C.

complicated by bone injuries.

D.

full-thickness burns of the hands and feet.



37.

A construction worker who was using a shovel to move soil around a new underground telephone cable is electrocuted after what witnesses say was a big flash in the hole. The patient is lying motionless. You should first:

A.

put on rubber boots and enter the hole.

B.

make certain the power is turned off.

C.

contact the telephone company to determine whether the lines are dead.

D.

loop a rope and attempt to hook it around the patient's ankle and drag him across the hole.



38.

After arriving at a construction site where a worker has been electrocuted, you have determined that the scene is now safe. Which of the following steps should you take immediately to care for the patient?

A.

Begin CPR if indicated.

B.

Cover any wounds with moist, sterile dressings.

C.

Apply venous tourniquets above burn wounds on the extremities.

D.

Remove his gloves and examine his hands for wounds.



39.

A 67-year-old man was burned in a kitchen fire. He has 20% partial thickness burns to his chest and arms. You would classify his burns as:

A.

minor.

B.

moderate.

C.

severe.

D.

critical.



40.

A 29-year-old woman has partial thickness burns to all of her left arm and superficial thickness burns to most of her back and flank. Total body surface area burns for this patient using the Rule of Nines would be:

A.

18%.

B.

22%.

C.

27%.

D.

36%.



The following 15 questions are from Chapter 20




41.

The bony socket in which the eye is located is called the:

A.

globe.

B.

retina.

C.

orbit.

D.

chamber.



42.

The opening in the center of the iris that allows light to move to the back of the eye is called the:

A.

sclera.

B.

pupil.

C.

cornea.

D.

conjunctiva.



43.

A fracture of the bones of the floor of the orbit is known as a:

A.

blowout fracture.

B.

open fracture.

C.

orbital fracture.

D.

basal fracture.



44.

When caring for a patient with a chemical burn to the eyes, the rescuer should first:

A.

cover both eyes and transport.

B.

flush with water for 5 or more minutes.

C.

keep eyelids open until at the hospital.

D.

assess pupils every 5 minutes.



45.

When treating a patient with thermal burns to the eyelids, the rescuer should:

A.

cover both eyes with a dry dressing.

B.

cover both eyes with a moist dressing.

C.

keep the patient sitting up with eyes open.

D.

keep the patient lying down with eyes open.



46.

When caring for a laceration to the globe of the eye, the rescuer should use a dressing and apply:

A.

gentle pressure.

B.

moderate pressure.

C.

direct pressure.

D.

no pressure.



47.

Contact lenses should not be removed in the field except in cases of:

A.

thermal burns.

B.

chemical burns.

C.

radiation burns.

D.

light burns.



48.

Variations in pupil size may indicate that the patient has:

A.

a head injury.

B.

contact lenses.

C.

conjunctivitis.

D.

retinitis.



49.

When caring for a penetrating eye injury in which part of the eyeball is exposed, the rescuer should:

A.

gently cover the eye with a dry dressing.

B.

leave the area exposed and transport the patient.

C.

gently cover the eye with a moist dressing.

D.

cover the uninjured eye and transport.



50.

To remove a small foreign object from the surface of a patient's eye, the rescuer should first:

A.

irrigate with salt water.

B.

cover both eyes and transport.

C.

irrigate gently with normal saline.

D.

irrigate forcefully with normal saline.



51.

The light-sensitive area of the eye where images are projected is the:

A.

iris.

B.

conjunctiva.

C.

lens.

D.

retina.



52.

When caring for an unconscious patient, the rescuer should:

A.

keep the eyelids closed to prevent drying.

B.

keep the eyelids open to assess pupils.

C.

apply pressure to the globe to assess for lacerations.

D.

alternate between opening and closing the eyelids.



53.

The white portion of the eye is the:

A.

conjunctiva.

B.

retina.

C.

sclera.

D.

iris.



54.

Treatment of eye injuries always begins with:

A.

irrigation with normal saline.

B.

a thorough examination.

C.

visual acuity tests.

D.

palpation of the eyes.



55.

When securing an impaled object in the eye, both eyes are bandaged to:

A.

reduce movement of the injured eye.

B.

decrease the anxiety of the patient.

C.

treat the possibility of another injury.

D.

prevent a headache from light sensitivity.



The following 15 questions are from Chapter 21




56.

The lower jaw bone is the:

A.

zygoma.

B.

maxilla.

C.

mandible.

D.

mastoid.



57.

Bleeding from facial soft-tissue injuries is best controlled by:

A.

cold packs and elevation.

B.

direct pressure with dry, sterile dressings.

C.

pressure point usage with moist bandages.

D.

constricting bands with dry dressings.



58.

In caring for facial injuries, the rescuer's primary concern is to:

A.

stop all bleeding.

B.

stabilize the c-spine.

C.

maintain an open airway.

D.

assess all vital signs.



59.

Avulsions of the scalp should be cared for by:

A.

placing the avulsed flap back in position and covering with a moist dressing.

B.

covering the inside of the avulsed flap with a moist dressing and the scalp with a dry dressing.

C.

covering both the scalp and the avulsed flap with a moist, sterile dressing.

D.

placing the avulsed flap back in place and covering with a dry dressing.



60.

A nose bleed is often best cared for by:

A.

placing the patient in a sitting position, leaning forward, and pinching the nostrils together.

B.

placing the patient in a sitting position, leaning backward, and pinching the nostrils together.

C.

placing the patient in a supine position with gauze pads under the nostrils.

D.

placing the patient in a lateral position with gauze pads under the dependent nostril.



61.

The middle ear is connected to the nasal cavity by the:

A.

external auditory canal.

B.

tympanic membrane.

C.

eustachian tube.

D.

cochlea.



62.

When bandaging an ear injury, the rescuer should:

A.

use only moist, sterile dressings and roller bandages.

B.

place a soft padded dressing between the ear and scalp.

C.

use forceful direct pressure to control bleeding.

D.

place gauze pads in the ear canal to control bleeding.



63.

Crushing injuries to the upper neck are likely to involve the:

A.

oropharynx.

B.

nasopharynx.

C.

esophagus.

D.

larynx.



64.

The presence of air in soft tissues produces a characteristic crackling sensation called:

A.

subcutaneous emphysema.

B.

subcutaneous hypoxia.

C.

pulmonary embolus.

D.

spontaneous pneumothorax.



65.

If a neck vein has been opened, air can enter the blood system causing an:

A.

air thrombus.

B.

air embolism.

C.

pneumothorax.

D.

hemothorax.



66.

When caring for an open bleeding neck wound involving the carotid or jugular vessels, the rescuer should:

A.

use a tourniquet above the wound.

B.

apply pressure to the subclavicular pressure point.

C.

apply pressure below the wound.

D.

apply pressure above and below the wound.



67.

The rescuer should assume that any patient who has sustained a direct blow to the mouth or nose has a:

A.

facial fracture.

B.

basal fracture.

C.

blowout fracture.

D.

larynx fracture.



68.

A 25-year-old male patient, an unrestrained passenger in a head-on collision, has struck the windshield with his face. On exam you notice significant swelling, minimal bleeding, and four missing teeth. Assessment of this patient should first focus on:

A.

controlling the bleeding.

B.

immobilizing the spine.

C.

managing the airway.

D.

reducing the swelling.



69.

A 6-year-old is riding her bicycle and runs into a lowered tailgate on a pickup truck. She has moderate respiratory distress and subcutaneous emphysema on exam. Priority care for this patient includes:

A.

cardiac monitoring.

B.

rapid transport.

C.

a detailed physical exam.

D.

obtaining vital signs.



70.

A 19-year-old man ran into a tree on his mountain bike and a tree branch is stuck in his neck. Priority management of this patient would include:

A.

spinal immobilization.

B.

control of bleeding.

C.

airway management.

D.

assessment for shock.



The following 15 questions are from Chapter 22




71.

A patient who sustains a spinal fracture at the level of C5 to C6 will be paralyzed:

A.

from the waist down.

B.

from the shoulders down.

C.

on the left side only.

D.

on the right side only.



72.

Chest injuries resulting in fractured ribs, sternum, or whole areas of the chest are usually caused by:

A.

penetrating trauma.

B.

open wounds.

C.

blunt trauma.

D.

spontaneous pneumothorax.



73.

Patients with chest injuries will often present with signs of respiratory distress, including:

A.

tachypnea.

B.

hypovolemia.

C.

bradycardia.

D.

tachycardia.



74.

Hemoptysis is:

A.

the spitting or coughing up of blood.

B.

blood in the urinary tract.

C.

inflammation of blood cells.

D.

blood in the cardiac sac.



75.

Accumulation of air in the pleural space is known as:

A.

subcutaneous emphysema.

B.

flail chest.

C.

hemothorax.

D.

pneumothorax.



76.

A patient who has an open chest wound, the sound of air rushing with exhalation, and a characteristic sound with inhalation is generally known to have a:

A.

whistling chest wound.

B.

rushing chest wound.

C.

sucking chest wound.

D.

reverberating chest wound.



77.

A patient who has three or more ribs fractured in two or more places has a:

A.

compound fracture.

B.

tension fracture.

C.

flail chest.

D.

compromised chest.



78.

Increased respiratory distress, distended neck veins, and tracheal deviation are signs and symptoms associated with a:

A.

pneumothorax.

B.

hemothorax.

C.

tension pneumothorax.

D.

hemopneumothorax.



79.

A detached portion of the chest wall that is moving in the direction opposite to normal has:

A.

paradoxical motion.

B.

parabolic motion.

C.

converse movement.

D.

bilateral movement.



80.

Blood filling the sac around the heart is known as:

A.

myocardial contusion.

B.

pulmonary contusion.

C.

pericardial tamponade.

D.

pulmonary tamponade.



81.

A sudden, severe compression of the chest that produces distended neck veins, cyanosis of the face and neck, and hemorrhage into the sclera is a condition known as:

A.

spontaneous pneumothorax.

B.

traumatic asphyxia.

C.

tension pneumothorax.

D.

pericardial tamponade.



82.

A narrowing of the pulse pressure, weak pulse, low blood pressure, and faint heart sounds are indications of:

A.

myocardial contusion.

B.

pulmonary contusion.

C.

pericardial tamponade.

D.

pulmonary tamponade.



83.

Pain aggravated by the normal process of breathing and described as "sharp" or "sticky" is called:

A.

dyspnea.

B.

pleurisy.

C.

dyspneumonia.

D.

pneumonitis.



84.

A skier is struck by a car in the lodge parking lot. Patient assessment reveals an intact chest wall, unilateral breath sounds, and a deviated trachea. Priority care for this patient would include:

A.

splinting the chest with a soft pillow.

B.

requesting advanced life support.

C.

inserting a needle into the pleural space.

D.

administering abdominal thrusts.



85.

A 25-year-old snowboarder has hit a tree. On exam you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilateral but decreased breath sounds, and cyanosis. Priority care for this patient includes:

A.

rapid transport to the hospital.

B.

ventilatory support.

C.

contacting medical control.

D.

deferring vital signs.



The following 15 questions are from Chapter 23




86.

The spilling of the contents of hollow organs in the abdomen causes an intense inflammatory reaction called:

A.

pericarditis.

B.

peritonitis.

C.

appendicitis.

D.

urinemia.



87.

Because of a rich blood supply, injuries to the ______ organs of the abdomen may cause severe bleeding.

A.

hollow

B.

solid

C.

intestinal

D.

urinary



88.

The most common sign of a significant abdominal injury is:

A.

tachycardia.

B.

pain.

C.

tachypnea.