The following 25 questions are from Chapter 13




1.

Pain felt at a location other than its origin is:

A.

transferred pain.

B.

transposed pain.

C.

remote pain.

D.

referred pain.



2.

Shock may occur with an acute abdomen because:

A.

acute abdomen causes internal hemorrhage.

B.

fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues.

C.

abdominal distention impairs the heart's ability to pump.

D.

severe pain causes neurogenic shock.



3.

Nothing may be given by mouth to a patient with an acute abdomen because:

A.

digestive sounds prevent accurate auscultation.

B.

food in the stomach prevents a patient from accurately describing the location of abdominal pain.

C.

the presence of food in the stomach will make an emergency surgery more dangerous.

D.

it will create referred pain and obscure the diagnosis.



4.

The parietal peritoneum lines the:

A.

surface of the abdominal organs.

B.

walls of the abdominal cavity.

C.

retroperitoneal space.

D.

lungs and chest cavity.



5.

Tensing of abdominal muscles with an acute abdomen is known as:

A.

protection.

B.

referral.

C.

guarding.

D.

peritonitis.



6.

A 20-year-old male patient is complaining of a mass protruding in his groin. It is painful at the site, and the surrounding skin is bluish. You would suspect a serious problem of:

A.

strangulated hernia.

B.

hernia peritonea.

C.

congenital hernia.

D.

herniation syndrome.



7.

Oral glucose works in the body by:

A.

decreasing blood glucose levels.

B.

decreasing insulin production.

C.

increasing blood glucose levels.

D.

increasing insulin production.



8.

You should give oral glucose to patients who are known diabetics and:

A.

are found unconscious.

B.

are complaining of chest pain.

C.

have high blood pressure.

D.

have an altered level of consciousness.



9.

Oral glucose should not be given to diabetic patients who:

A.

are found unconscious.

B.

have low blood pressure.

C.

are complaining of abdominal pain.

D.

have been drinking alcoholic beverages.



10.

You are giving oral glucose to a patient with diabetes when the patient suddenly has a seizure. What should you do for this patient?

A.

Maintain the airway.

B.

Assess ability to swallow.

C.

Place in a prone position.

D.

Continue giving glucose to increase the blood glucose level.



11.

Diabetic patients with an altered level of consciousness are in need of prompt care because:

A.

hypertension can lead to unconsciousness.

B.

hypoglycemia can lead to unconsciousness.

C.

insulin overdose can lead to heat exhaustion.

D.

cold skin temperatures can lead to hypothermia.



12.

Oral glucose is given to patients by placing it:

A.

in a glass of juice.

B.

behind the oropharynx.

C.

underneath the tongue.

D.

between the cheek and gum.



13.

Before giving oral glucose, you must make sure the patient is:

A.

seizing.

B.

not in kidney failure.

C.

unconscious.

D.

able to swallow.



14.

A known diabetic patient is found on the floor of the day lodge. His speech is slurred, and he is unable to tell you his name. His wife states that she hasn't been able to get him to eat much for several days. What treatment should he receive?

A.

Administration of oral glucose.

B.

Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway.

C.

A glass of juice.

D.

An insulin injection.



15.

Children with diabetes who overexert themselves are prone to:

A.

rapid drops in their ability to sweat.

B.

rapid drops in their blood glucose levels.

C.

rapid increases in their blood pressure.

D.

rapid increases in their blood glucose levels.



16.

Patients with diabetes may have a seizure because of a change in the level of:

A.

stress in their life.

B.

glucose in their blood.

C.

water in their body.

D.

blood in their body.



17.

What are the classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia?

A.

warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; deep, rapid respirations

B.

warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia (slow heartbeat); rapid respirations

C.

pale, clammy skin; bradycardia (slow heartbeat); hunger; deep, rapid respirations

D.

pale, clammy skin; abnormal behavior; tachycardia (rapid heartbeat); rapid respirations



18.

Which of the following would be an important question to ask as you obtain a patient history from a known diabetic?

A.

Have you had any alcohol today?

B.

How many meals do you eat a day?

C.

Did you eat today and if so, when?

D.

Do you have problems with your vision?



19.

Type I diabetes:

A.

appears more common later in life.

B.

is identified by a complete lack of insulin production.

C.

can frequently be controlled by diet and exercise.

D.

requires oral medications to regulate blood glucose values.



20.

Type II diabetes:

A.

strikes children of younger ages.

B.

requires insulin injections to control blood glucose values.

C.

can usually be controlled by diet and oral medications.

D.

indicates patients are not able to produce insulin.



21.

You respond to a gift shop for an elderly patient who is confused. His wife tells you he has type II diabetes but refuses to take his pills. Your initial treatment for this patient would be to:

A.

monitor vital signs and transport immediately.

B.

confirm the patient can swallow without difficulty and give oral glucose.

C.

complete a detailed exam inspecting for nonhealing wounds.

D.

insist he take twice the dose of his oral hypoglycemic medication now.



22.

Which of the following is the main chemical released into the body during an allergic reaction?

A.

histamine

B.

epinephrine

C.

beta-carotene

D.

antihistamine



23.

Which of the following actions does epinephrine cause when administered for an allergic reaction?

A.

dilates blood vessels and dilates bronchi

B.

dilates blood vessels and constricts bronchi

C.

constricts blood vessels and dilates bronchi

D.

constricts blood vessels and constricts bronchi



24.

Stridor is a sound produced by:

A.

an enlargement of the tongue and gums.

B.

air movement through the small nasal passages.

C.

a narrowing or constriction of the lower airway caused by swelling or a foreign object.

D.

a narrowing or constriction of the upper airway caused by swelling or a foreign object.



25.

A 4-year-old patient is brought into the aid room by his mother. She explains that she found him next to an empty bottle of toilet bowl cleaner in the restroom, and she thinks he drank it. You should first:

A.

contact your local poison control center and monitor the child for breathing difficulties.

B.

get the mother to help you get the patient to drink a glass of milk.

C.

give water continuously to the patient while waiting for transport to a medical facility.

D.

give syrup of ipecac and then give oxygen.



The following 10 questions are from Chapter 14




26.

Which factor(s) accounts for a higher injury incident rate in the late afternoon?

A.

higher skier density

B.

fatigue

C.

deteriorating ski conditions

D.

all of the above



27.

Higher incidents of knee sprains, tibia fractures, and other rotational injuries are associated with which conditions?

A.

heavy wet snow

B.

icy conditions

C.

deep powder

D.

A & C



28.

The most common serious ski injury—which poses a permanent threat to an active lifestyle— is:

A.

clavicle fracture.

B.

wrist fracture.

C.

severe knee sprain.

D.

snowboarder's ankle.



29.

Which group, skiers or snowboarders, is at a slightly higher risk for injury?

A.

skiers

B.

snowboarders

C.

both at same risk

D.

There is no risk involved.



30.

Which group, skiers or snowboarders, experience more injuries to the upper extremities?

A.

skiers

B.

snowboarders

C.

both at same risk

D.

There is no risk involved.



31.

Ankle injuries in snowboarders are frequently the result of which mechanism of injury?

A.

compression

B.

inversion

C.

dorsiflexion

D.

all of the above



32.

Snowboarder's ankle is the fracture of which bone?

A.

tibia

B.

fibula

C.

calcaneus

D.

talus



33.

Tubing injuries, most often caused by collisions or rollovers, cause which type of injuries?

A.

soft-tissue injuries

B.

head and spinal injuries

C.

multiple fractures

D.

all of the above



34.

Which resources may be necessary to effectively rescue an injured mountain bike rider?

A.

single-wheeled litters

B.

all-terrain vehicles

C.

helicopters

D.

all of the above



35.

In common rotational falls, the affected foot usually moves:

A.

inward

B.

outward

C.

anteriorly

D.

posteriorly



The following 5 questions are from Chapter 15




36.

Hypothermia occurs when:

A.

heat gained exceeds heat lost.

B.

heat lost exceeds heat gained.

C.

air temperature exceeds body temperature.

D.

air temperature drops below body temperature.



37.

Hyperthermia occurs when:

A.

heat gained exceeds heat lost.

B.

heat lost exceeds heat gained.

C.

air temperature exceeds body temperature.

D.

air temperature drops below body temperature.



38.

Mild hypothermia occurs with core body temperatures of:

A.

90–95°F.

B.

85–90°F.

C.

80–85°F.

D.

75–80°F.



39.

Severe hypothermia occurs with core body temperatures of:

A.

90–95°F.

B.

85–90°F.

C.

95–98°F.

D.

75–80°F.



40.

The emergency care of superficial frostbite is to:

A.

rapidly rewarm the affected part in a waterbath that has a temperature of 102–108º F.

B.

apply direct body heat, no warmer than normal body temperature.

C.

open any blisters that may have formed.

D.

wrap the affected part in sterile dry dressings and immobilize.



The following 5 questions are from Chapter 16




41.

The term behavioral emergency is defined as:

A.

a person's mental activity.

B.

behavior that is within acceptable norms.

C.

the manner in which a person acts or performs.

D.

a change in mood or behavior that cannot be tolerated by the person, family, or community.



42.

Your patient is lying supine. He is incoherent and sluggish, and his breath smells of alcohol. The police identify him as a chronic alcoholic. What other condition could cause this patient's change in behavior?

A.

gout

B.

bursitis

C.

mild hypertension

D.

uncontrolled diabetes



43.

You have been called to a scene where the patient is displaying violent behavior. You should:

A.

be prepared to spend extra time.

B.

leave immediately.

C.

position the patient between you and the exit.

D.

not identify yourself to the patient.



44.

Which of the following manners should you use to question a patient with a behavioral emergency?

A.

calm and reassuring

B.

joyful and lighthearted

C.

aggressive and purposeful

D.

authoritative and self-assured



45.

The most effective way to manage disruptive patients is to:

A.

confront them and take charge.

B.

ask questions timidly.

C.

be direct.

D.

delay medical treatment until they cooperate.



The following 5 questions are from Chapter 17




46.

Why is delivery with a prolapsed cord considered a true emergency?

A.

It is a sign that the baby is too large to be delivered outside of the hospital.

B.

It is a sign of a possible miscarriage as the baby's blood supply is cut off.

C.

It might threaten the baby's life because the baby's blood supply is cut off.

D.

It might threaten the mother's life, as the decrease in blood supply might lead to seizures.



47.

What is considered a breech birth?

A.

The baby is born prematurely.

B.

The baby's face is the presenting part.

C.

The baby's head is too large to be delivered.

D.

The baby's buttocks are the presenting part.



48.

Factors that help you to assess whether a delivery is to take place soon include frequency and length of contractions, crowning, and the:

A.

baby's due date.

B.

mother's complaints of nausea.

C.

mother's complaints of increased pressure in her rectum.

D.

mother's complaints of increasing pain with each contraction.



49.

Which of the following statements about injuries to the female genitalia is true?

A.

Foreign objects should be removed from the vagina before transport.

B.

Vaginal bleeding should be controlled by the insertion of sterile dressings.

C.

Bleeding involving the external female genitalia should be controlled with a moist, sterile dressing and direct pressure.

D.

Bleeding of the ureter can be easily controlled with direct local pressure.



50.

Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth?

A.

Amniotic sac ruptures

B.

The mother states "the baby is coming"

C.

Contractions are 10 minutes apart and lasting 30 seconds.

D.

The mother instinctively begins to clean the house and pack for the hospital.




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