The following 20 questions are from Chapter 5




1.

What skin color is associated with cyanosis?

A.

pale

B.

jaundiced

C.

bluish tint

D.

reddish



2.

When you inspect a patient's pupils with a flashlight, the pupils should normally react to the light by:

A.

dilating.

B.

fluttering.

C.

constricting.

D.

not responding.



3.

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to:

A.

dilate.

B.

not react.

C.

become larger.

D.

constrict.



4.

What information should be noted when you assess a patient's pulse?

A.

depth, rate, clarity

B.

difficulty in finding

C.

rate, regularity, strength

D.

if the patient can feel his own pulse



5.

The radial pulse is found:

A.

near the patient's leg, close to the hip.

B.

underneath the arm, near the shoulder.

C.

on the underside of the wrist, on the same side as the thumb.

D.

on the underside of the wrist, on the same side as the little finger.



6.

Systolic blood pressure is defined as the measurement of the pressure exerted against the walls of the:

A.

veins while the heart is at rest.

B.

veins during contraction of the heart.

C.

arteries while the heart is at rest.

D.

arteries during contraction of the heart.



7.

Diastolic blood pressure is defined as the measurement of the pressure exerted against the walls of the:

A.

veins while the heart is at rest.

B.

veins during contraction of the heart.

C.

arteries while the left ventricle is at rest.

D.

arteries during contraction of the heart.



8.

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by:

A.

increased oxygen in the blood.

B.

arterial vasodilation.

C.

venous vasoconstriction.

D.

decreased oxygen in the blood.



9.

In obtaining a patient's history, the abbreviation SAMPLE is often used to get the most complete history. SAMPLE is an acronym for:

A.

signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, physical exam, last time of occurrence, evidence of associated problems.

B.

signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, events leading to the injury or illness.

C.

skill, associated couplets, medical physician, physical exam, last oral intake, evaluation.

D.

skin color, associated complaints, medical physician, pertinent past history, location of the injury, events leading to the injury or illness.



10.

In a stable patient, vital signs should be reassessed:

A.

whenever the patient requests an update.

B.

whenever you care for the patient for over 1 hour.

C.

at least every 15 minutes.

D.

at least every 30 minutes.



11.

Which of the following are vital signs?

A.

blood pressure, skin condition, skin color

B.

respiration rate, skin condition, skin color

C.

pulse rate, respiration rate, skin color

D.

pulse rate, blood pressure, respiration rate



12.

Normal pupil size and reaction is described as:

A.

midsize pupils that are both equal in size and shape and dilate when exposed to light.

B.

midsize pupils that are both equal in size and shape and constrict when exposed to light.

C.

large-diameter pupils that are both equal in size and shape and dilate when exposed to light.

D.

small-diameter pupils that are equal in size and shape and constrict when exposed to light.



13.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of respiratory distress?

A.

nasal flaring

B.

labored breathing

C.

low blood pressure

D.

accessory muscle use



14.

For at least how many seconds should you palpate an adult's pulse to determine the rate, volume, and regularity of the pulse?

A.

6

B.

15

C.

30

D.

60



15.

The normal breathing rate for an adult is:

A.

8 to 12 breaths/min.

B.

12 to 20 breaths/min.

C.

15 to 30 breaths/min.

D.

20 to 40 breaths/min.



16.

The normal breathing rate for a child is:

A.

8–12 breaths/min.

B.

12–20 breaths/min.

C.

15–30 breaths/min.

D.

20–40 breaths/min.



17.

The normal breathing rate for an infant is:

A.

12–20 breaths/min.

B.

15–30 breaths/min.

C.

20–40 breaths/min.

D.

25–50 breaths/min.



18.

Bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate of:

A.

more than100 beats/min.

B.

fewer than 60 beats/min.

C.

more than 150 beats/min.

D.

fewer than 100 beats/min.



19.

Tachycardia is defined as a pulse rate of:

A.

fewer than 100 beats/min.

B.

more than 150 beats/min.

C.

fewer than 60 beats/min.

D.

more than 100 beats/min.



20.

A late sign of shock and an indication that critical decompensation has begun is:

A.

a decrease in blood pressure.

B.

an increase in blood pressure.

C.

an increase in respiratory rate.

D.

a capillary refill time of 3 seconds.



The following 20 questions are from Chapter 6




21.

The opening to the trachea is guarded by a leaf-shaped structure called the:

A.

bronchus.

B.

epiglottis.

C.

cricoid cartilage.

D.

thyroid cartilage.



22.

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?

A.

pharynx

B.

epiglottis

C.

trachea

D.

nasopharynx



23.

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the lower airway?

A.

alveoli

B.

bronchi

C.

trachea

D.

epiglottis



24.

What type of muscle is the diaphragm?

A.

tensed

B.

relaxed

C.

skeletal

D.

smooth



25.

Inadequate breathing in an adult exists when the rate is less than:

A.

8 or more than 24 breaths/min.

B.

10 or more than 30 breaths/min.

C.

12 or more than 35 breaths/min.

D.

12 or more than 40 breaths/min.



26.

Which of the following methods is used to open the airway in a non-trauma patient?

A.

head tilt–neck lift

B.

head tilt–chin lift

C.

simple hyperextension

D.

hyperextension–jaw thrust



27.

Which of the following methods is used to open the airway in a patient with a possible spinal cord injury?

A.

jaw thrust

B.

jaw thrust–neck lift

C.

jaw thrust–head tilt

D.

head tilt–chin lift



28.

Suctioning of the oral cavity in an adult patient should be accomplished within how many seconds?

A.

5

B.

10

C.

15

D.

20



29.

During mouth-to-mouth ventilations, what percentage of oxygen is being provided?

A.

12%

B.

16%

C.

20%

D.

24%



30.

Which of the following statements about the use of bag-valve-mask devices is FALSE?

A.

They are difficult for one rescuer to use.

B.

They are available in pediatric and adult sizes.

C.

They provide more oxygen than mouth-to-mask systems.

D.

They provide more volume than mouth-to-mask systems.



31.

What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?

A.

vomitus

B.

the tongue

C.

blood clots

D.

aspirated food



32.

The recovery position for an unconscious patient without a spinal injury reduces the chance for:

A.

shock.

B.

snoring.

C.

drooling.

D.

vomiting and aspiration.



33.

To select the proper size of nasal airway, you should measure:

A.

only the diameter of the nostril.

B.

from the tip of the nose to the chin.

C.

from the tip of the nose to the earlobe.

D.

from the tip of the nose to the corner of the mouth.



34.

A full tank of oxygen contains how many pounds per square inch (psi)?

A.

1,000

B.

2,000

C.

3,000

D.

varies with different sizes of tanks



35.

Up to what percentage of oxygen is delivered by a nonrebreathing facemask?

A.

100%

B.

90%

C.

80%

D.

70%



36.

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, measure the distance between the:

A.

chin and nostril.

B.

chin and earlobe.

C.

nose and earlobe.

D.

corner of the mouth and earlobe.



37.

Oxygen is a medical gas. What color tank is it stored in?

A.

blue

B.

gray

C.

green

D.

yellow



38.

Hypoxia is defined as:

A.

decreased oxygen in body tissues.

B.

increased oxygen saturations.

C.

reduced ventilations.

D.

oxygen and carbon dioxide mismatch.



39.

The breathing pattern with increasing rate and depth of respirations followed by periods of no breathing is known as:

A.

apnea.

B.

agonal respirations.

C.

Cheyne-Stokes breathing.

D.

Biot's respirations.



40.

Gastric distention may be prevented by:

A.

ventilating quickly, one second per breath.

B.

slow and complete emptying of the BVM device and reservoir.

C.

using the Sellick maneuver.

D.

stacking ventilations one after the other.




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